And why is that wrong? Phonetic languages exist. And if dialect indicates a regional altercation, then how come ebonics is not one when it has clearly altered an existing language?
Sure the one mentioned in the post was a ridiculous example, but to say that ebonics in general is people unable to speak English is not a great school of thought.
Did anyone here actually google what ebonics is. It's not even considered English itself.
It actually is defined as it's own language. So it is not a dialect. Please at least do SOME research before you argue this.
It is considered a vernacular language in the American system. I do have awareness of it. But if you would actually pay attention to it, the full form of the official term is African American Vernacular English. It is still a part of the English language. And it has been recognised as a language only recently. Before it was considered a dialect.
Here's the definition of vernacular.
"A vernacular, or vernacular language, is the speech variety a term generally used to refer to a local language or dialect, as distinct from what is seen as a standard language".
We are talking in the modern terms, but that doesn't change the fact that it is a dialect as well. And the fact that even after being recognised as it's own language, people do not take it as so and believe it to be a grammatical mistake.
I am not fighting anyone's battles here. I am just saying that it's just another language. This post was an example of the "bone apple tea" situation, but boi do people get worked up.
Dialect implies it is a regional alteration of an existing language
Sure the one mentioned in the post was a ridiculous example, but to say that ebonics in general is people unable to speak English is not a great school of thought.
It actually is defined as it's own language. So it is not a dialect. Please at least do SOME research before you argue this.
"A vernacular, or vernacular language, is the speech variety a term generally used to refer to a local language or dialect, as distinct from what is seen as a standard language".
We are talking in the modern terms, but that doesn't change the fact that it is a dialect as well. And the fact that even after being recognised as it's own language, people do not take it as so and believe it to be a grammatical mistake.
I am not fighting anyone's battles here. I am just saying that it's just another language. This post was an example of the "bone apple tea" situation, but boi do people get worked up.
Who the fuck brought up vernacular